Abstract
A 43-year-old man attends the surgery with a 3 week history of increasing constipation. There is no weight loss or rectal bleeding. Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal. The patient's mother and brother have both previously received treatment for colorectal cancer.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate course of action to take in the management of this patient? Select ONE option only.
Arrange a full blood count
Prescribe lactulose
Prescribe movicol (polyethylene glycol)
Reassurance and lifestyle advice
Refer urgently to a colorectal surgeon